MCQs 4 Exams - MCQs 4 Exams

MCQs on Economy [Set – 4]

MCQs on Economy [Set – 4] 1. ‘Bear Market’ refers to: A) A market showing upward trendsB) A steadily declining marketC) A market showing irregular fluctuationsD) A rapidly growing market Show Answer Correct Answer: B) A steadily declining marketExplanation: A Bear Market refers to a stock market condition where prices are falling or expected to fall. 2. Which is a money market instrument? A) SharesB) BondsC) Treasury BillsD) Mutual Funds Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Treasury BillsExplanation: Treasury Bills are short-term government securities and are part of the money market instruments. 3. The practice of selling goods in a foreign country at a price below their domestic selling price is called: A) DumpingB) HedgingC) ArbitrageD) Speculation Show Answer Correct Answer: A) DumpingExplanation: Dumping is an international trade practice involving the export of a product at a price lower than the price it normally commands in its domestic market. 4. ‘Demand Draft’ is issued by: A) Commercial BanksB) The governmentC) CorporationsD) Individuals Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Commercial BanksExplanation: A Demand Draft is a negotiable instrument issued by banks to transfer money from one bank account directly to another. 5. Which policy uses variation in government spending and tax rates to influence the economy? A) Monetary PolicyB) Fiscal PolicyC) Trade PolicyD) Wage Policy Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Fiscal PolicyExplanation: Fiscal Policy uses changes in government spending and taxes to influence economic conditions including demand, employment, and inflation. 6. In terms of economics, what does ‘PPP’ stand for? A) Purchase Price ParityB) Public-Private PartnershipC) Purchasing Power ParityD) Payable Purchase Price Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Purchasing Power ParityExplanation: Purchasing Power Parity is an economic theory that compares different countries’ currencies through a “basket of goods” approach to determine the relative value of the currencies. 7. Which is NOT a component of the Indian financial system? A) Financial institutionsB) Financial marketsC) Financial servicesD) Public revenue Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Public revenueExplanation: Public revenue pertains to government finance and taxation, whereas the financial system comprises institutions, markets, and services. 8. What does the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) mainly focus on? A) Economic DevelopmentB) Investment FundsC) Money LaunderingD) World Trade Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Money LaunderingExplanation: The FATF is an international body that develops policies to combat money laundering and terrorism financing. 9. The ‘Golden Revolution’ in India was related to: A) PharmaceuticalsB) HorticultureC) TextilesD) Petroleum Show Answer Correct Answer: B) HorticultureExplanation: The Golden Revolution refers to the period of rapid development and growth in the horticulture sector in India. 10. What is a ‘Credit Rating’? A) A measure of a financial instrument’s credit qualityB) An interest rate applicable to banksC) A tax levied on large financial transactionsD) A rule governing the use of credit cards Show Answer Correct Answer: A) A measure of a financial instrument’s credit qualityExplanation: A credit rating assesses the credit worthiness of a debtor, predicting their ability to pay back the debt and an implied risk of default. 11. What does the economic term ‘Inflation’ indicate? A) An increase in the stock marketB) A decrease in unemployment ratesC) An increase in prices of goods and servicesD) A decrease in the rates of home loans Show Answer Correct Answer: C) An increase in prices of goods and servicesExplanation: Inflation is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising, leading to a decrease in the purchasing power of currency. 12. The term ‘Fintech’ is commonly associated with: A) Financial technologyB) Finished products technologyC) Fiscal adjustmentsD) Fixed term investments Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Financial technologyExplanation: Fintech refers to new tech that seeks to improve and automate the delivery and use of financial services, enhancing everything from mobile banking to cryptocurrency. 13. What is ‘Market Capitalization’? A) A measure of a company’s total employment sizeB) The total market value of a company’s outstanding sharesC) A government-imposed limit on how many products a company can produceD) The floor space owned by a company in square feet Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The total market value of a company’s outstanding sharesExplanation: Market capitalization refers to the total dollar market value of a company’s outstanding shares of stock, computed as share price times the number of outstanding shares. 14. The ‘Monetary Policy Framework’ in India aims to keep inflation at: A) 1%B) 4%C) 10%D) 6% Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 4%Explanation: The primary objective of the monetary policy framework in India is to maintain price stability while keeping the inflation target at 4% within a band of +/- 2%. 15. Which institution is responsible for the regulation of the insurance industry in India? A) RBIB) SEBIC) SIDBID) IRDAI Show Answer Correct Answer: D) IRDAIExplanation: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is the regulatory body responsible for regulating and promoting the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. 16. ‘Corporate Social Responsibility’ (CSR) in India is mandated under which act? A) Companies Act, 2013B) Societies Registration Act, 1860C) Cooperative Societies Act, 1912D) Companies Act, 1956 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Companies Act, 2013Explanation: Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is mandated under the Companies Act, 2013, which requires companies to spend a certain percentage of their profits on social and environmental projects. 17. Which term is used to describe the total market value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period within a country’s borders? A) Gross National Product (GNP)B) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)C) Net National Product (NNP)D) National Income Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)Explanation: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total market value of all goods and services produced within a country in a specific time period, encompassing all private and public consumption, government outlays, investments, and exports less imports that occur within a defined territory. 18. In terms of banking, what does ‘NEFT’ stand for? A) National Electronic Funds TransferB) Non-Essential Finance TaxC) New Fund TransferD) National Electronic Finance Terms Show Answer Correct Answer: A) National Electronic Funds TransferExplanation: NEFT stands for National Electronic Funds Transfer, an Indian system of electronic transfer of money from one bank or bank branch to another. 19. Which

MCQs on Economy [Set – 3]

MCQs Static GK, MCQs Economy

MCQs on Economy [Set – 3] 1. ‘Angel Investors’ are associated with which stage of a business? A) Initial public offeringB) MaturityC) Start-upD) Decline Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Start-upExplanation: Angel investors typically provide financial backing for small startups or entrepreneurs, often in exchange for ownership equity in the company. 2. What is the primary focus of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of India? A) Controlling the foreign exchange reservesB) Regulating the issue of Indian currencyC) Maintaining price stabilityD) Promoting big infrastructure projects Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Maintaining price stabilityExplanation: The main objective of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. 3. ‘Venture Capital’ is a form of what type of financing? A) Debt FinancingB) Equity FinancingC) Mezzanine FinancingD) Bridge Financing Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Equity FinancingExplanation: Venture capital is a form of private equity and a type of financing that investors provide to startup companies and small businesses that are believed to have long-term growth potential. 4. Which index is used by the Reserve Bank of India to measure inflation? A) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)C) SENSEXD) NIFTY Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)Explanation: RBI uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its major index for measuring inflation and changes in monetary policies. 5. In the context of Indian banking, what does NPA stand for? A) Non-Personal AccountB) Non-Performing AssetC) Non-Priority AreaD) Non-Probate Asset Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Non-Performing AssetExplanation: An NPA, or Non-Performing Asset, refers to a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days. 6. What does ‘Repo Rate’ refer to? A) The rate at which RBI lends to commercial banksB) The rate charged by banks to customers for home loansC) The rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banksD) The rate offered on fixed deposits by banks Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The rate at which RBI lends to commercial banksExplanation: The repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (RBI in the case of India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. 7. Which committee was associated with reforms in the banking sector in India in the 1990s? A) Urjit Patel CommitteeB) Rangarajan CommitteeC) Narasimham CommitteeD) Kelkar Committee Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Narasimham CommitteeExplanation: The Narasimham Committee was set up in the 1990s to look into banking sector reforms and to further strengthen the financial institutions of India. 8. Which rate is known as the benchmark interest rate of the Reserve Bank of India? A) Bank RateB) Repo RateC) Reverse Repo RateD) Marginal Standing Facility Rate Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Repo RateExplanation: The Repo Rate is considered the key interest rate set by the RBI to control inflation and stabilize the currency through the regulation of liquidity in the economy. 9. Which index measures the stock market performance of 30 major companies listed on stock exchanges in India? A) NIFTY 50B) BSE MidcapC) BSE SensexD) NIFTY IT Show Answer Correct Answer: C) BSE SensexExplanation: The BSE Sensex, also called the S&P BSE Sensex, tracks the performance of 30 financially sound and well-established companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). 10. The ‘Tendulkar Committee’ was established to report on which of the following? A) Corporate governanceB) Poverty estimatesC) Defense expendituresD) Educational reforms Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Poverty estimatesExplanation: The Tendulkar Committee was formed to provide a more comprehensive method for estimating poverty in India, accounting for spending on health and education besides the minimum calorie intake. 11. ‘MUDRA’ is a financial initiative aimed at assisting which sector of the economy? A) Large corporationsB) Micro, small and medium enterprisesC) Foreign investorsD) Non-profit organizations Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Micro, small and medium enterprisesExplanation: MUDRA (Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd.) focuses on the development of the MSME sector by providing financial assistance to micro-enterprises. 12. What is the primary function of the ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’ in India? A) Tax collectionB) Pension fund managementC) Financial sector developmentD) Strengthening financial stability Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Strengthening financial stabilityExplanation: The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) aims to strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination, and promoting financial sector development in India. 13. Which term is used to describe a situation where the government’s expenditures surpass its revenue? A) DeflationB) Fiscal DeficitC) InflationD) Recession Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Fiscal DeficitExplanation: A fiscal deficit occurs when a government’s total expenditures exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings. 14. The ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is an index created by which organization? A) International Monetary Fund (IMF)B) United Nations (UN)C) World Bank GroupD) World Economic Forum Show Answer Correct Answer: C) World Bank GroupExplanation: The Ease of Doing Business Index is compiled by the World Bank Group to measure regulations directly affecting businesses and overall ease of doing business. 15. What is the effect of ‘depreciation of currency’ on export prices? A) Increases the export pricesB) Decreases the export pricesC) Stabilizes the export pricesD) Does not affect export prices Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Decreases the export pricesExplanation: Depreciation of the currency makes a country’s exports cheaper and more competitive in the global market, potentially increasing the volume of exports. 16. Which Indian state launched the ‘Chiranjeevi Health Insurance Scheme’? A) MaharashtraB) RajasthanC) Tamil NaduD) Gujarat Show Answer Correct Answer: B) RajasthanExplanation: Rajasthan launched the Chiranjeevi Health Insurance Scheme to provide health insurance to its residents. 17. ‘NABARD’ is related to which sector? A) IndustrialB) EducationalC) AgriculturalD) Health Show Answer Correct Answer: C) AgriculturalExplanation: NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) focuses on the agricultural sector and rural development. 18. What does ‘GST’ stand for? A) General State TaxB) General Sales TaxC) Goods and Services TaxD) Government Service Tax Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Goods and Services TaxExplanation: GST stands for Goods and Services Tax, which is a unified indirect tax across India on goods and

MCQs on Economy [Set – 2]

MCQs Static GK, MCQs Economy

MCQs on Economy [Set – 2] 1. Which index measures the performance of the services sector in India? A) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)B) Services Sector Index (SSI)C) Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI)D) Consumer Price Index (CPI) Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI)Explanation: The Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) – Services is an indicator of the economic health of the services sector in India. It provides information about the business conditions in the services sector, such as output, sales, and employment. 2. What does NABARD stand for? A) National Bank for Agricultural and Rural DevelopmentB) National Bureau for Agriculture and Rural DevelopmentC) National Association for Business and Rural DevelopmentD) National Agency for Agriculture and Rural Development Show Answer Correct Answer: A) National Bank for Agricultural and Rural DevelopmentExplanation: NABARD stands for National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development, which is an apex development financial institution in India focused on the promotion of sustainable agriculture and rural development. 3. Who presents the Union Budget in the Parliament of India? A) Prime MinisterB) PresidentC) Finance MinisterD) RBI Governor Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Finance MinisterExplanation: The Union Budget of India is annually presented by the Finance Minister in the Parliament. This budget outlines the government’s revenue and expenditure for the upcoming fiscal year. 4. Which Five-Year Plan focused on the theme ‘Growth with Social Justice and Equity’? A) Sixth Five-Year PlanB) Eleventh Five-Year PlanC) Ninth Five-Year PlanD) Seventh Five-Year Plan Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Eleventh Five-Year PlanExplanation: The Eleventh Five-Year Plan of India (2007-2012) focused on growth with social justice and equity, aiming to reduce poverty and address inequalities in the society. 5. What does the term ‘demographic dividend’ refer to in India? A) The benefit from a decrease in the country’s populationB) The financial support from the diasporaC) The advantage of having a large youth populationD) The revenue generated from demographic surveys Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The advantage of having a large youth populationExplanation: Demographic dividend refers to the economic benefit arising from a significant proportion of working-age individuals in the population, which India is poised to capitalize on due to its large youth population. 6. What is the primary function of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)? A) Regulating stock exchangesB) Monitoring rural developmentC) Handling agricultural loansD) Governing educational policies Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Regulating stock exchangesExplanation: The primary function of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is to regulate and supervise the securities market in India, ensuring the protection of investors and the development of the securities market. 7. Which committee recommended the establishment of NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission in India? A) Rangarajan CommitteeB) Kelkar CommitteeC) Nayak CommitteeD) Bimal Jalan Committee Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Bimal Jalan CommitteeExplanation: The recommendation to replace the Planning Commission with NITI Aayog was proposed by the Bimal Jalan Committee, focusing on a more decentralized approach to governance and development. 8. What is India’s apex institution that handles the settlement of financial transactions in government securities? A) Securities and Exchange Board of IndiaB) Reserve Bank of IndiaC) National Payments Corporation of IndiaD) Clearing Corporation of India Limited Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Clearing Corporation of India LimitedExplanation: The Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) acts as the central counterparty in various segments of the financial market, handling the settlement of transactions in government securities, among other financial instruments. 9. The term ‘Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act’ relates to which aspect of Indian governance? A) Education reformB) Defense expenditureC) Budgetary stabilityD) Agricultural subsidies Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Budgetary stabilityExplanation: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act of 2003 in India is aimed at ensuring fiscal discipline by setting targets for the government to manage its deficits and expenditure. 10. Which sector does the term ‘Blue Economy’ refer to? A) Information TechnologyB) Ocean resourcesC) ManufacturingD) Healthcare Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Ocean resourcesExplanation: The term ‘Blue Economy’ refers to the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and jobs while preserving the health of ocean ecosystems. 11. In the context of Indian economy, what does ‘vote on account’ refer to? A) A special session in Parliament for tax reformsB) A provision for government spending before the electionC) An exclusive economic zone voteD) A community vote on public sector investments Show Answer Correct Answer: B) A provision for government spending before the electionExplanation: A ‘vote on account’ is a provision in the Indian financial system that allows the government to obtain Parliament’s approval for funds to meet its expenses until the full budget is passed, especially used during election years. 12. What is the base year currently used to calculate India’s GDP? A) 2011-12B) 2004-05C) 1990-91D) 2001-02 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 2011-12Explanation: India uses 2011-12 as the base year for calculating GDP. This change provides a more accurate and up-to-date reflection of the country’s economic status. 13. The ‘Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate’ (MCLR) was introduced by RBI to replace which rate? A) Base RateB) Benchmark Prime Lending RateC) Bank RateD) Discount Rate Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Base RateExplanation: The MCLR was introduced by the RBI to make the lending rates more responsive to policy changes, replacing the Base Rate system. 14. Which of the following is a direct tax? A) Excise dutyB) Service taxC) Wealth taxD) Sales tax Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Wealth taxExplanation: Wealth tax is a direct tax, which means it is levied directly on the wealth of individuals, trusts, or firms. 15. India’s first Greenfield Industrial Smart City is being set up under the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor in which state? A) GujaratB) RajasthanC) MaharashtraD) Uttar Pradesh Show Answer Correct Answer: A) GujaratExplanation: Gujarat is home to India’s first Greenfield Industrial Smart City, part of the ambitious Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor project aimed at developing new industrial cities as “Smart Cities.” 16. What does CPI stand for in economic terms? A) Consumer Product IndexB) Consumer Price IndexC) Commercial Price IndexD) Commodity Price Index Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Consumer Price IndexExplanation: The Consumer Price Index measures changes in

MCQs on Polity [Set – 13]

MCQs Static GK, MCQs Polity

MCQs on Polity [Set – 13] 1. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the right to constitutional remedies? A) Article 21B) Article 226C) Article 32D) Article 19 Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Article 32Explanation: Article 32 of the Constitution provides the right to constitutional remedies, allowing individuals to approach the Supreme Court to seek justice when they feel their rights have been ‘unduly deprived’. 2. The President of India can promulgate ordinances during which of the following scenarios? A) When one of the houses of Parliament is not in sessionB) When both houses of Parliament are not in sessionC) When the Lok Sabha is dissolvedD) All of the above Show Answer Correct Answer: D) All of the aboveExplanation: The President can promulgate ordinances when either or both houses of Parliament are not in session and also when the Lok Sabha is dissolved. 3. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? A) Article 141B) Article 143C) Article 144D) Article 145 Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Article 143Explanation: Article 143 of the Constitution deals with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, under which the President may seek its opinion on any question of law or fact. 4. What is the minimum age required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha? A) 25 yearsB) 30 yearsC) 35 yearsD) 21 years Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 30 yearsExplanation: The minimum age required to be a member of the Rajya Sabha is 30 years. 5. The provision for the appointment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes is under which article? A) Article 338B) Article 340C) Article 341D) Article 342 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 338Explanation: Article 338 of the Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. 6. Which article empowers the Parliament to modify or annul any law relating to taxation during a financial emergency? A) Article 360B) Article 358C) Article 359D) Article 361 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 360Explanation: Article 360 empowers the Parliament to modify or annul any law relating to taxation in the event of a financial emergency. 7. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities? A) Eleventh ScheduleB) Twelfth ScheduleC) Tenth ScheduleD) Ninth Schedule Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Twelfth ScheduleExplanation: The Twelfth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, added by the 74th Amendment, lists the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities. 8. The ‘Right to Property’ was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during which amendment? A) 42nd AmendmentB) 44th AmendmentC) 26th AmendmentD) 31st Amendment Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 44th AmendmentExplanation: The ‘Right to Property’ was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment in 1978 and was made a legal right under Article 300A. 9. Who is responsible for the creation of All India Services? A) President of IndiaB) Union CabinetC) Parliament of IndiaD) Prime Minister of India Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Parliament of IndiaExplanation: The Parliament of India has the authority to create new All India Services under Article 312 of the Indian Constitution. 10. Which article provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission in India every five years? A) Article 280B) Article 281C) Article 282D) Article 283 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 280Explanation: Article 280 of the Indian Constitution mandates the establishment of a Finance Commission every five years to review financial relations between the central and state governments. 11. The principle of gender equality is enshrined in the Indian Constitution under which articles? A) Articles 14 and 15B) Articles 15 and 16C) Articles 14 and 16D) Articles 15 and 17 Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Articles 15 and 16Explanation: Articles 15 and 16 of the Indian Constitution provide for the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, and equality of opportunity in matters of public employment, respectively. 12. What is the maximum interval allowed between two sessions of Parliament? A) 3 monthsB) 6 monthsC) 9 monthsD) 12 months Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 6 monthsExplanation: The maximum interval allowed between two sessions of Parliament is six months, ensuring that the Parliament meets at least twice a year. 13. Who has the power to decide on the disqualification of members of Parliament under the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? A) President of IndiaB) Election Commission of IndiaC) Speaker of the Lok SabhaD) Supreme Court of India Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Speaker of the Lok SabhaExplanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to decide on questions of disqualification of members under the Tenth Schedule, which deals with the Anti-Defection Law. 14. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Administrative Tribunals? A) Part XVB) Part XIVC) Part XIV AD) Part XVI Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Part XIVAExplanation: Part XIVA of the Indian Constitution, introduced by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, deals with Administrative Tribunals, which help reduce the burden on courts by adjudicating on matters related to the recruitment and conditions of public service. 15. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution was introduced by the 73rd Amendment to provide for the powers and functions of Panchayats? A) Tenth ScheduleB) Eleventh ScheduleC) Twelfth ScheduleD) Thirteenth Schedule Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Eleventh ScheduleExplanation: The Eleventh Schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment to list the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats. 16. Under which article is the ‘Equal pay for equal work’ for both men and women guaranteed? A) Article 14B) Article 15C) Article 16D) Article 39 Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Article 39Explanation: Article 39(d), under the Directive Principles of State Policy, ensures ‘Equal pay for equal work’ for both men and women. 17. The concept of Judicial Review in India is adopted from the Constitution of which country? A) United KingdomB) United StatesC) CanadaD) Australia Show Answer Correct Answer: B) United StatesExplanation: The concept of Judicial Review, where courts have the power to strike down laws, treaties, and executive actions that they find to violate the Constitution, is adopted from the United States. 18. The right to constitutional remedies in India is available under which of the following conditions?

MCQs on Polity [Set – 12]

MCQs Static GK, MCQs Polity

MCQs on Polity [Set – 12] 1. Which article provides the President of India the power to consult the Supreme Court? A) Article 143B) Article 145C) Article 124D) Article 137 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 143Explanation: Article 143 provides the President with the authority to consult the Supreme Court on any question of law or public importance. 2. The principle of ‘Collective Responsibility’ of the Cabinet is embodied in which Article of the Indian Constitution? A) Article 74B) Article 75C) Article 78D) Article 83 Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Article 75Explanation: Article 75(3) embodies the principle of ‘Collective Responsibility’, stating that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People. 3. How many members can the President of India nominate to the Lok Sabha? A) 2B) 12C) 3D) 5 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 2Explanation: The President can nominate 2 members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian community if he believes that the community is not adequately represented. 4. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union Territories? A) Part VIB) Part VIIC) Part VIIID) Part IX Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Part VIIIExplanation: Part VIII of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union Territories, outlining the manner of their administration and governance. 5. The term of office for a Rajya Sabha member is: A) 2 yearsB) 4 yearsC) 5 yearsD) 6 years Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 6 yearsExplanation: A member of the Rajya Sabha serves for a term of six years. 6. Which constitutional amendment introduced the system of Panchayati Raj in India? A) 73rd AmendmentB) 74th AmendmentC) 61st AmendmentD) 86th Amendment Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 73rd AmendmentExplanation: The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, provided a constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions. 7. The provision for having a Finance Commission to review financial division between the Union and the states is provided in which Article? A) Article 280B) Article 282C) Article 360D) Article 112 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 280Explanation: Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for a Finance Commission to define the financial relations between the central government and the state governments. 8. Who is responsible for the registration of voters and the conduct of elections in India? A) ParliamentB) State LegislaturesC) Election Commission of IndiaD) President of India Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Election Commission of IndiaExplanation: The Election Commission of India is responsible for the registration of voters and the conduct of all elections at the federal and state levels. 9. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the amendment process? A) Article 352B) Article 360C) Article 368D) Article 370 Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Article 368Explanation: Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure for its amendment. 10. What is the role of the Attorney General of India? A) Chief legal advisor to the PresidentB) Chief legal advisor to the Government of IndiaC) Chief Justice of the Supreme CourtD) None of the above Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Chief legal advisor to the Government of IndiaExplanation: The Attorney General is the highest law officer in the country and acts as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India. 11. The term ‘Municipality’ appears in which part of the Indian Constitution? A) Part IXB) Part IXAC) Part XD) Part XI Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Part IXAExplanation: Part IXA of the Constitution, added by the 74th Amendment, deals with municipalities and provides for their organization, powers, and functions. 12. What does the 52nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution deal with? A) Reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled TribesB) Reduction of voting age from 21 to 18C) Anti-defection lawD) Introduction of Goods and Services Tax Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Anti-defection lawExplanation: The 52nd Amendment, passed in 1985, introduced changes in the constitution to place restrictions on defections by elected members of Parliament and the state legislatures. 13. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India? A) The Chief Justice of IndiaB) The Vice President of IndiaC) The Speaker of the Lok SabhaD) The Prime Minister of India Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The Chief Justice of IndiaExplanation: The Chief Justice of India administers the oath of office to the President of India. 14. What is the main function of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)? A) To handle the administration of courtsB) To appoint judges to the higher judiciaryC) To review the judgments given by the judiciaryD) To amend the laws related to the judiciary Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To appoint judges to the higher judiciaryExplanation: The NJAC, proposed to replace the existing Collegium system, was aimed at handling the appointments and transfers of judges to the higher judiciary. 15. The provision for the Uniform Civil Code is found in which article of the Indian Constitution? A) Article 44B) Article 32C) Article 25D) Article 14 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 44Explanation: Article 44, under the Directive Principles of State Policy, provides for the State to strive to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India. 16. Which among the following is not a function of the Prime Minister as per the Indian Constitution? A) Advising the President in the appointment of the judges of the Supreme CourtB) Presiding over the meetings of the Council of MinistersC) Recommending dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the PresidentD) Participating in the election of the President Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Participating in the election of the PresidentExplanation: The Prime Minister does not participate in the election of the President, although he may support a candidate as a member of the electoral college if he is also a member of the Parliament. 17. What is the role of the ‘Leader of the House’ in the Indian Parliamentary System? A) To head the government in the houseB) To organize the legislative activities of the governmentC) To ensure the smooth functioning of the house during sessionsD) All of the above Show Answer Correct Answer: D) All of the aboveExplanation: The Leader of the House is responsible for heading the government in the house, organizing the legislative activities of the government, and ensuring the smooth functioning of the house during

MCQs on Polity [Set – 11]

MCQs Static GK, MCQs Polity

MCQs on Polity [Set – 11] 1. The President of India holds office for a term of how many years? A) 4 yearsB) 5 yearsC) 6 yearsD) No fixed term Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 5 yearsExplanation: The President of India holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office, but he can resign earlier or be removed before his term expires. 2. Who has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India? A) The Parliament of IndiaB) The President of IndiaC) The Supreme Court of IndiaD) The Attorney General of India Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The Supreme Court of IndiaExplanation: The Supreme Court of India has the final authority to interpret the Constitution, and its interpretations are binding on all other courts within India. 3. Which one of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom? A) MandamusB) CertiorariC) Quo WarrantoD) Habeas Corpus Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Habeas CorpusExplanation: Habeas Corpus is a writ that acts as a bulwark of personal freedom. It literally means ‘to have the body of’, and its purpose is to bring a person before a court to determine if the person’s detention is lawful. 4. Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India? A) Federal structureB) RigidityC) FlexibilityD) Unitary bias Show Answer Correct Answer: B) RigidityExplanation: While the Indian Constitution is both rigid and flexible, it is not entirely rigid; it allows for amendments under certain conditions, making it a blend of rigidity and flexibility to maintain stability and adapt to changes. 5. In the context of Indian law, ‘secularism’ implies: A) No religion for the stateB) State has its own religionC) State respects all religionsD) State patronizes a particular religion Show Answer Correct Answer: C) State respects all religionsExplanation: In the Indian context, secularism means that the state maintains an impartial attitude towards all religions and does not uphold any religion as the state religion. 6. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the High Courts in the States? A) Article 214B) Article 215C) Article 216D) Article 217 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 214Explanation: Article 214 states that there shall be a High Court for each state. 7. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill? A) The President of IndiaB) The Speaker of the Lok SabhaC) The Chairman of the Rajya SabhaD) The Finance Minister Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The Speaker of the Lok SabhaExplanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the final say in deciding whether a bill presented in the parliament is a Money Bill or not. 8. The President of India can declare a state of emergency on the grounds of: A) War, external aggression, or armed rebellionB) Failure of constitutional machinery in any stateC) Financial instabilityD) All of the above Show Answer Correct Answer: D) All of the aboveExplanation: The President can declare three types of emergencies: national emergency, state emergency (President’s rule), and financial emergency. 9. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labor? A) Right to FreedomB) Right against ExploitationC) Right to Constitutional RemediesD) Right to Freedom of Religion Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Right against ExploitationExplanation: Article 23 of the Indian Constitution, under the category Right against Exploitation, prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labor. 10. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in: A) The Parliament of IndiaB) The President of IndiaC) The Chief Justice of IndiaD) The Law Commission of India Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The Parliament of IndiaExplanation: The Parliament of India has the power to legislate the increase in the number of judges in the Supreme Court, as per the needs of the judiciary. 11. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding anti-defection? A) Second ScheduleB) Fifth ScheduleC) Tenth ScheduleD) Twelfth Schedule Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Tenth ScheduleExplanation: The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, added by the 52nd Amendment in 1985, contains provisions regarding disqualification on the ground of defection. 12. Who is the protector of the Constitution of India? A) The President of IndiaB) The Prime Minister of IndiaC) The Supreme Court of IndiaD) The Parliament of India Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The Supreme Court of IndiaExplanation: The Supreme Court of India is considered the protector of the Constitution. It has the ultimate authority to interpret the Constitution and ensure its provisions are upheld. 13. What is the role of the Prime Minister of India? A) Chief Executive of the StateB) Head of GovernmentC) Head of StateD) Protector of the Constitution Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Head of GovernmentExplanation: The Prime Minister of India is the head of government and is responsible for running the government of India. He is not the head of state, nor the chief executive of the state. 14. Which constitutional amendment made the right to education a fundamental right? A) 42nd AmendmentB) 86th AmendmentC) 44th AmendmentD) 73rd Amendment Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 86th AmendmentExplanation: The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, provided for the right to education for children aged 6 to 14 years under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution. 15. The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was first mooted by: A) Mahatma GandhiB) Jawaharlal NehruC) M. N. RoyD) B. R. Ambedkar Show Answer Correct Answer: C) M. N. RoyExplanation: The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was first put forward by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India, in 1934. 16. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India? A) Article 148B) Article 149C) Article 150D) Article 151 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 148Explanation: Article 148 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment and duties of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. 17. The Indian Constitution recognizes minorities based on: A) Religion and languageB) Religion, language, and raceC) Language and ethnicityD) Only religion Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Religion and languageExplanation: The Indian Constitution recognizes minorities based on religion and language, providing safeguards to protect their rights. 18. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides

MCQs on Polity [Set – 10]

MCQs Static GK, MCQs Polity

MCQs on Polity [Set – 10] 1. Which of the following is a feature of the ‘Cabinet System’ of government as adopted by India? A) Individual responsibility to the HouseB) Collective responsibility to the Lower HouseC) Collective responsibility to the Upper HouseD) Individual responsibility to the President Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Collective responsibility to the Lower HouseExplanation: One of the key features of the Cabinet system in India is the principle of collective responsibility of the Cabinet to the Lower House of Parliament (Lok Sabha). 2. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Election Commission of India? A) Article 324B) Article 326C) Article 327D) Article 328 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 324Explanation: Article 324 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Election Commission of India, which is responsible for administering and supervising all elections according to the Constitution. 3. The power to appoint the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners rests with: A) The Chief Justice of IndiaB) The Prime Minister of IndiaC) The Parliament of IndiaD) The President of India Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The President of IndiaExplanation: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India. 4. Under which article can the President of India grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment? A) Article 72B) Article 161C) Article 213D) Article 233 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 72Explanation: Article 72 gives the President of India the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial; in all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends; or in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death. 5. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution? A) Fourth ScheduleB) Fifth ScheduleC) Sixth ScheduleD) Eighth Schedule Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Eighth ScheduleExplanation: The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution, currently including 22 languages. 6. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the amendment process? A) Article 366B) Article 367C) Article 368D) Article 369 Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Article 368Explanation: Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure for amending the Constitution, including the proposal, passage, and ratification of constitutional amendments. 7. The ‘Right to Equality’ is guaranteed by the Indian Constitution under which article(s)? A) Article 14 to Article 18B) Article 19 to Article 22C) Article 23 to Article 24D) Article 25 to Article 28 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 14 to Article 18Explanation: Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution guarantee the right to equality to every citizen of India, including equality before the law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth, equality of opportunity in matters of employment, abolition of untouchability and titles. 8. The ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’ of the Constitution of India was propounded by the Supreme Court in: A) The Golak Nath CaseB) The Keshavananda Bharati CaseC) The Indira Gandhi Election CaseD) The Minerva Mills Case Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The Keshavananda Bharati CaseExplanation: The ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’ was propounded by the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973), wherein the Court ruled that the basic structure of the Constitution of India cannot be altered or destroyed by amendments by the Parliament. 9. Under which conditions can the President of India declare a state of emergency? A) War, external aggression, or armed rebellionB) Failure of constitutional machinery in a stateC) Financial instabilityD) All of the above Show Answer Correct Answer: D) All of the aboveExplanation: The President can declare three types of emergencies: national emergency for war, external aggression, or armed rebellion (Article 352); President’s rule for failure of constitutional machinery in a state (Article 356); and financial emergency for threat to financial stability or credit of India (Article 360). 10. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties? A) Part IIIB) Part IVC) Part IVAD) Part V Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Part IVAExplanation: Part IVA of the Indian Constitution, which includes Article 51A, specifies the Fundamental Duties of citizens. It was added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. 11. Who has the authority to suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution? A) The PresidentB) The Prime MinisterC) The ParliamentD) The Supreme Court Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The PresidentExplanation: During a proclamation of emergency, the President has the authority to suspend the enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Rights as specified in the order. 12. Which of the following is not a constitutional body? A) Finance CommissionB) Election CommissionC) Planning CommissionD) Union Public Service Commission Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Planning CommissionExplanation: The Planning Commission, which was replaced by the NITI Aayog in 2015, was not a constitutional body but a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. 13. The power to levy a tax is derived from: A) The Indian Penal CodeB) The Constitution of IndiaC) The Income Tax ActD) The Finance Act Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The Constitution of IndiaExplanation: The power to levy taxes in India is derived from the Constitution, which allocates the power to levy various taxes between the Centre and the States. 14. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution? A) Right to Freedom of ReligionB) Right to Constitutional RemediesC) Right to EqualityD) Right to Freedom Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Right to Constitutional RemediesExplanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described the Right to Constitutional Remedies, as enshrined in Article 32 of the Constitution, as the heart and soul of the Constitution. This article allows individuals to approach the Supreme Court directly in case of any violation of their Fundamental Rights. 15. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures

MCQs on Polity [Set – 9]

MCQs Static GK, MCQs Polity

MCQs on Polity [Set – 9] 1. Under which article can the President of India promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament? A) Article 123B) Article 213C) Article 312D) Article 360 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 123Explanation: Article 123 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. 2. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states? A) Article 2B) Article 3C) Article 4D) Article 5 Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Article 3Explanation: Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states, alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing states by law, ensuring the dynamic administrative needs of the country are met. 3. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its: A) Advisory jurisdictionB) Appellate jurisdictionC) Original jurisdictionD) Writ jurisdiction Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Original jurisdictionExplanation: The Supreme Court’s power to handle disputes between the Centre and one or more states or between different states is part of its original jurisdiction as outlined in Article 131 of the Constitution. 4. The President of India can declare a financial emergency under which article? A) Article 352B) Article 356C) Article 360D) Article 370 Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Article 360Explanation: Article 360 of the Constitution allows the President to declare a financial emergency if he/she believes that the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is in danger. 5. Who has the constitutional authority to make rules specifying which matters are confidential to be published in the Official Gazette? A) The President of IndiaB) The Speaker of the Lok SabhaC) The Prime Minister of IndiaD) The Supreme Court of India Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The President of IndiaExplanation: The President has the constitutional authority to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business in terms of which includes specifying what matters are confidential to be published in the Official Gazette under Article 77(3). 6. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in: A) The Rajya Sabha onlyB) The Lok Sabha onlyC) Both houses simultaneouslyD) Either house of Parliament Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Either house of ParliamentExplanation: The impeachment process for the President can be initiated in either house of Parliament, requiring a two-thirds majority for a successful impeachment. 7. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Vice-President of India to be ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? A) Article 63B) Article 64C) Article 65D) Article 66 Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Article 64Explanation: Article 64 of the Indian Constitution states that the Vice-President of India shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). 8. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian judiciary? A) Independence of judiciaryB) Judicial reviewC) Appointment of judges by the judiciaryD) A hierarchy of courts Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Appointment of judges by the judiciaryExplanation: In India, judges of the higher judiciary are appointed by the President of India (not by the judiciary itself), which is advised by the Collegium System involving senior judges recommending appointments. 9. The salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court of India are charged on the: A) Public Account of IndiaB) Contingency Fund of IndiaC) Consolidated Fund of IndiaD) State Exchequer Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Consolidated Fund of IndiaExplanation: The salaries, allowances, and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring their independence and immunity from financial manipulation. 10. Under which article is the provision for the Finance Commission of India made? A) Article 280B) Article 282C) Article 283D) Article 284 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 280Explanation: Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for a Finance Commission, which is constituted by the President every five years to evaluate the distribution of revenues between the Union and the states. 11. The division of powers between the Union and the states in the Indian Constitution is embodied in which schedule? A) Seventh ScheduleB) Eighth ScheduleC) Ninth ScheduleD) Tenth Schedule Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Seventh ScheduleExplanation: The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains three lists which enumerate the subjects under the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List, detailing the division of powers. 12. The residuary powers, which are not enumerated in any of the three lists, are vested in: A) The State governmentsB) The Union governmentC) Both the Union and State governmentsD) The President of India Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The Union governmentExplanation: According to Article 248 and the Seventh Schedule, any matter not enumerated in the State List or Concurrent List falls under the residuary powers, which are vested in the Union government. 13. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court? A) Article 127B) Article 126C) Article 125D) Article 124 Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Article 124Explanation: Article 124 of the Indian Constitution deals with the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court, including provisions for its functioning, powers, and roles. 14. The concept of judicial review in the Indian Constitution is based on which of the following practices? A) British practiceB) American practiceC) French practiceD) Australian practice Show Answer Correct Answer: B) American practiceExplanation: The concept of judicial review in India, where courts have the power to strike down laws passed by the Parliament if they are found to be unconstitutional, is borrowed from American practice. 15. The minimum number of members that must be present to hold a meeting of either House of Parliament is known as: A) Minimum attendanceB) Session requirementC) QuorumD) Roll call Show Answer Correct Answer: C) QuorumExplanation: Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present at a meeting to make the proceedings of that meeting valid, which, according to the Constitution of India, is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House. 16. Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha? A)

MCQs on Polity [Set – 8]

MCQs Static GK, MCQs Polity

MCQs on Polity [Set – 8] 1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister? A) Article 74B) Article 75C) Article 76D) Article 77 Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Article 75Explanation: Article 75(1) specifies that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President, and the other ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. 2. Who certifies a bill as a ‘Money Bill’ in India? A) The President of IndiaB) The Speaker of the Lok SabhaC) The Chairman of the Rajya SabhaD) The Finance Minister Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The Speaker of the Lok SabhaExplanation: In India, only the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to certify a bill as a Money Bill, making this certification crucial for the legislative process involving financial matters. 3. The Right to Information Act was passed in which year? A) 2005B) 2002C) 2010D) 2001 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 2005Explanation: The Right to Information Act, which aims to promote transparency and accountability in the working of the government, was passed in 2005. 4. What is the maximum age limit for holding the office of the President of India? A) 72 yearsB) 75 yearsC) 80 yearsD) There is no maximum age limit Show Answer Correct Answer: D) There is no maximum age limitExplanation: There is no maximum age limit for a person to hold the office of the President of India. 5. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission? A) Article 280B) Article 282C) Article 283D) Article 284 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 280Explanation: Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission to define the financial relations between the central government and the states. 6. The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the constitution of which country? A) United States of AmericaB) United KingdomC) South AfricaD) Australia Show Answer Correct Answer: C) South AfricaExplanation: The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is largely borrowed from the Constitution of South Africa. 7. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth? A) Article 15B) Article 16C) Article 14D) Article 17 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 15Explanation: Article 15 of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination by the state against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. 8. The term ‘Secular’ was added to the preamble of the Indian Constitution by which amendment? A) 42nd Amendment, 1976B) 44th Amendment, 1978C) 52nd Amendment, 1985D) 61st Amendment, 1988 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 42nd Amendment, 1976Explanation: The term ‘Secular’ was added to the preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, along with ‘Socialist’ and ‘Integrity’. 9. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts and for Acts, Bills, etc.? A) Article 343B) Article 348C) Article 351D) Article 354 Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Article 348Explanation: Article 348 of the Indian Constitution specifies that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court and the authoritative texts of all legislation shall be in English until Parliament by law otherwise provides. 10. The concept of a ‘Single Citizenship’ for the whole of India was adopted from which country’s constitution? A) CanadaB) United StatesC) United KingdomD) Ireland Show Answer Correct Answer: C) United KingdomExplanation: The concept of a ‘Single Citizenship’ for the whole country, unlike the federal citizenship structure in countries like the USA, is adopted from the United Kingdom. 11. Who has the authority to remove a judge of the Supreme Court of India? A) The President of IndiaB) The Parliament of IndiaC) The Chief Justice of IndiaD) The Law Commission of India Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The Parliament of IndiaExplanation: A judge of the Supreme Court can only be removed by an order of the President, which can be issued only after an address by Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of the House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. 12. The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was incorporated in the Indian Constitution from the Constitution of: A) IrelandB) CanadaC) AustraliaD) United States Show Answer Correct Answer: A) IrelandExplanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy, incorporated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, were largely borrowed from the Irish Constitution. These principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. 13. Who is the head of the State in India? A) The President of IndiaB) The Prime Minister of IndiaC) The Chief Justice of IndiaD) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The President of IndiaExplanation: The President of India is the ceremonial head of the state, playing a pivotal role in the administration of the constitutional machinery. 14. The ‘Constitution Day’ of India is celebrated on: A) January 26B) August 15C) November 26D) October 2 Show Answer Correct Answer: C) November 26Explanation: ‘Constitution Day’ or ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in India on November 26 each year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India on November 26, 1949. 15. The idea of the Constitution of India was first mooted by: A) Mahatma GandhiB) Jawaharlal NehruC) M. N. RoyD) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Show Answer Correct Answer: C) M. N. RoyExplanation: The idea of having a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India was first put forward by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democratism. 16. Which Constitutional Amendment Act introduced changes in the preamble to the Indian Constitution? A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976B) 44th Amendment Act, 1978C) 86th Amendment Act, 2002D) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 Show Answer Correct Answer: A)

MCQs on Polity [Set – 7]

MCQs Static GK, MCQs Polity

MCQs on Polity [Set – 7] 1. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the election of the President? A) Article 54B) Article 55C) Article 56D) Article 57 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 54Explanation: Article 54 of the Indian Constitution deals with the election of the President of India. 2. The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ is associated with the service of: A) The President’s staffB) Civil servantsC) Governor’s staffD) All of the above Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Civil servantsExplanation: The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ means that the tenure of civil servants is at the pleasure of the President or the Governor, but it is subject to provisions laid down by the Constitution to ensure fairness. 3. Who among the following is considered the ‘Guardian of Public Purse’? A) The President of IndiaB) The Prime Minister of IndiaC) The Comptroller and Auditor General of IndiaD) The Finance Minister Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The Comptroller and Auditor General of IndiaExplanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is known as the ‘Guardian of Public Purse’ due to their role in auditing government expenditures. 4. What does Article 370 of the Indian Constitution deal with? A) Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and KashmirB) Special provisions with respect to the State of GujaratC) Special provisions with respect to the State of NagalandD) Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Punjab Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and KashmirExplanation: Article 370 provided special autonomy to the state of Jammu and Kashmir, allowing it to have its own Constitution and autonomy over internal administration except in defence, communications, and foreign affairs. 5. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union Territories? A) Part VB) Part VIC) Part VIIID) Part IX Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Part VIIIExplanation: Part VIII of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union Territories, outlining their administration and control. 6. Which constitutional amendment introduced the concept of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)? A) 99th AmendmentB) 101st AmendmentC) 103rd AmendmentD) 97th Amendment Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 99th AmendmentExplanation: The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the NJAC, which was later struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015. 7. Who is responsible for the appointment of the Finance Commission in India? A) The President of IndiaB) The Prime Minister of IndiaC) The Parliament of IndiaD) The Supreme Court of India Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The President of IndiaExplanation: The President of India is responsible for the appointment of the Finance Commission, which is constituted every five years. 8. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the duties of the Chief Minister with respect to the furnishing of information to the Governor? A) Article 167B) Article 168C) Article 169D) Article 170 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 167Explanation: Article 167 specifically deals with the duties of the Chief Minister with respect to the furnishing of information to the Governor of the state. 9. The power to alter the boundaries of states in India rests with: A) The President of IndiaB) The Supreme Court of IndiaC) The Parliament of IndiaD) The Prime Minister of India Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The Parliament of IndiaExplanation: The Parliament of India has the exclusive power to alter the boundaries of states under Article 3 of the Constitution. 10. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities? A) Ninth ScheduleB) Eleventh ScheduleC) Tenth ScheduleD) Twelfth Schedule Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Twelfth ScheduleExplanation: The Twelfth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, added by the 74th Amendment, deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities. 11. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Right to Education? A) Article 21AB) Article 24C) Article 45D) Article 46 Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Article 21AExplanation: Article 21A, which provides for the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years, was inserted by the 86th Amendment in 2002. 12. The concept of ‘Sovereignty’ in the preamble to the Constitution of India implies: A) The government’s power is limited by fundamental rightsB) The government has the power to legislate on any subjectC) India is free from external controlD) Citizens have supreme authority to elect their government Show Answer Correct Answer: C) India is free from external controlExplanation: Sovereignty in the context of the preamble implies that India is an independent entity, free from external control and capable of making laws for its territory. 13. Which constitutional amendment reduced the voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years? A) 73rd AmendmentB) 61st AmendmentC) 74th AmendmentD) 42nd Amendment Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 61st AmendmentExplanation: The 61st Amendment, passed in 1988, reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years, allowing a larger segment of the youth to participate in the democratic process. 14. Who has the authority to call a joint session of the Parliament of India? A) The President of IndiaB) The Prime Minister of IndiaC) The Speaker of the Lok SabhaD) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The President of IndiaExplanation: The President of India has the authority to summon a joint session of both houses of Parliament, which is typically called to resolve disagreements between the two houses on legislative proposals. 15. The first ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the history of the Lok Sabha was moved in the year: A) 1960B) 1975C) 1954D) 1989 Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 1954Explanation: The first ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Lok Sabha was moved in August 1954 by Acharya Kripalani against the government led by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. 16. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice? A) Article 29B) Article 30C) Article 31D) Article 32 Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Article 30Explanation: Article 30 of the Indian Constitution guarantees all minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice, thereby preserving their heritage and promoting their culture. 17. The President of India can be impeached for: A)

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